Linkedin Skill Assessments Quiz Answers – Cybersecurity(2022)

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LinkedIn is an American business and employment-oriented online service that operates via websites and mobile apps. Launched on May 5, 2003, the platform is mainly used for professional networking and allows job seekers to post their CVs and employers to post jobs.

If you are a graphic designer then you must make a strong profile on LinkedIn with your skills. Here is the:

Important note:

All Bolded and colored options are the right answers. Thank you 🙂
For exp: Q1 ans is 3

Q1. According to the shared responsibility model, which cloud computing model places the most responsibility on the cloud service provider (CSP)?

  • Hybrid Cloud
  • Software as a Service (SaaS)
  • Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  • Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Q2. Which option removes the risk of multitenancy in cloud computing?

  • PaaS
  • public cloud
  • private cloud
  • IaaS

Q3. Your organization recently implemented a unified messaging solution and VoIP phones on every desktop. You are responsible for researching the vulnerabilities of the VoIP system. Which type of attack are VoIP phones most vulnerable to experiencing?

  • denial-of-service
  • brute force attacks
  • malware
  • buffer overflow

Q4. Which security control cannot produce an active response to a security event?

  • cloud access security broker (CASB)
  • intrusion prevention system (IPS)
  • intrusion detection system (IDS)
  • next generation firewall

Explaination: An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. Source Quizlet

Q5. Packet sniffer is also called _.

  • SIEM
  • UTM
  • protocol analyzer
  • data sink

Q6. Which option tests code while it is in operation?

  • code review
  • code analysis
  • static analysis
  • dynamic analysis

Q7. Which option describes testing that individual software developers can conduct on their own code?

  • gray box testing
  • integration testing
  • white box testing
  • unit testing

Q8. In black box penetration testing, what information is provided to the tester about the target environment?

  • none
  • limited details of server and network infrastructure
  • all information
  • limited details of server infrastructure

Q9. Which security control can best protect against shadow IT by identifying and preventing use of unsanctioned cloud apps and services?

  • intrusion prevention system (IPS)
  • next generation firewall
  • cloud access security broker (CASB)
  • intrusion detection system (IDS)

Q10. Which option describes the best defense against collusion?

  • monitoring of normal employee system and data access patterns
  • applying system and application updates regularly
  • fault tolerant infrastructure and data redundancy
  • separation of duties and job rotation

Source: Stack Exchange

Q11. During a penetration test, you find a file containing hashed passwords for the system you are attempting to breach. Which type of attack is most likely to succeed in accessing the hashed passwords in a reasonable amount of time?

  • rainbow table attack
  • pass-the-hash attack
  • password spray attack
  • brute force attack

Explanation: A rainbow table attack is a more efficient and effective way of cracking many hashed passwords, whereas brute-forcing would take much longer and may not complete in a reasonable amount of time. Source Professor Messer.

Q12. Which area is DMZ?

  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

Q13. You configure an encrypted USB drive for a user who needs to deliver a sensitive file at an in-person meeting. What type of encryption is typically used to encrypt the file?

  • file hash
  • asymmetric encryption
  • digital signature
  • symmetric encryption

Q14. What is the difference between DRP and BCP

  • DRP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. BCP works to restore the original business capabilities.
  • BCP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. DRP works to restore the original business capabilities.
  • BCP is part of DRP.
  • DRP is part of BCP.

Q15. Which aspect of cybersecurity do Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks affect the most?

  • non-repudiation
  • integrity
  • availability
  • confidentiality

Source: screenshot of LinkedIn assessment practice mode question.

Q16. You need to recommend a solution to automatically assess your cloud-hosted VMs against CIS benchmarks to identify deviations from security best practices. What type of solution should you recommend?

  • Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
  • Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
  • Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)

Source: screenshot of LinkedIn assessment practice mode question.

Q17. _ validates the integrity of data files.

  • Compression
  • Hashing
  • Symmetric encryption
  • Stenography

Q18. Which is an example of privacy regulation at the state government level in the U.S.?

  • CCPA
  • GDPR
  • NIST Privacy Framework
  • OSPF

Q19. what is the term for the policies and technologies implemented to protect, limit, monitor, audit, and govern identities with access to sensitive data and resources?

  • identity and access management (IAM)
  • privileged account management (PAM)
  • authentication and authorization
  • least privilege

Q20. You have configured audit settings in your organization's cloud services in the event of a security incident. What type of security control is an audit trail?

  • preventive control
  • detective control
  • directive control
  • corrective control

Q21. What is the name for a short-term interruption in electrical power supply?

  • grayout
  • blackout
  • brownout
  • whiteout

Q22. Your security team recommends adding a layer of defense against emerging persistent threats and zero-day exploits for all endpoints on your network. The solution should offer protection from external threats for network-connected devices, regardless of operating system. Which solution is best suited to meet this requirement?

  • Security Information Event Management (SIEM)
  • Extended Detection and Response (XDR)
  • next generation firewall (NGFW)
  • Cloud App Security Broker (CASB)

Q23. Which is not a threat modeling methodology?


Q24. You organization is conducting a pilot deployment of a new e-commerce application being considered for purchase. You need to recommend a strategy to evaluate the security of the new software. Your organization does not have access to the application's source code.

Which strategy should you choose?

  • dynamic application security testing
  • unit testing
  • white box testing
  • static application security testing

Q25. You need to disable the camera on corporate devices to prevent screen capture and recording of sensitive documents, meetings, and conversations. Which solution would be be suited to the task?

  • Mobile Device Management (MDM)
  • Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
  • cloud access security broker (CASB)

Q26. How many keys would be necessary to accomodate 100 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?

  • 200
  • 400
  • 100
  • 300

Explaintion: The formula for asymmetric encryption is 2n; where n is the number of communicating parties.

Q27. Two competing online retailers process credit card transactions for customers in countries on every continent. One organization is based in the United States. The other is based in the Netherlands. With which regulation must both countries comply while ensuring the security of these transactions?

  • Federal Information Security Managment Act (FISMA)
  • Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
  • General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
  • International Organization for Standardization and Internation Electronical Commission (ISO/IEC 27018)

Explaintion: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is the global card industry security standard that is required of all entities that store, process, or transmit cardholder data, including financial institutions, online retailers and service providers. Source: (PCI Security Overview).

Q28. What provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structures and repeatable manner?

  • Common event format
  • common weakness enumeration
  • common vulnerabilties and exposures
  • common vulnerability scoring system

Explaination: The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system provides a reference-method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures.

Q29. Which type of application can intercept sensative information such as passwoprds on a network segment?

  • log server
  • network scanner
  • firewall
  • protocol analyzer

Explaination: A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel. WireShark is a protocol analyzer.

Q30. An attacker has discovered that they can deduce a sensitive piece of confidential information by analyzing multiple pieces of less sensative public data.

  • aggregation
  • inference
  • SQL injection
  • cross-origin resouce sharing

Explaination: An Inference Attack is a data mining technique performed by analyzing data in order to illegitimately gain knowledge about a subject or database. A subject's sensitive information can be considered as leaked if an adversary can infer its real value with a high confidence. Source: (Wikipedia).

Q31. What act grants an authenticated party permission to perform an action or access a resource?

  • Zero Trust Security
  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
  • authorization
  • Single Sign-On


Q32. According to GDPR, a data _ is the person about whom data is being collected.

  • processor
  • object
  • subject
  • controller

Source Intersoft Consulting

Q33. Which is not a principle of zero trust security?

  • use least privilege access
  • verify explicitly
  • trust but verify
  • assume breach

Explaination: zero trust assumes that the system will be breached and designs security as if there is no perimeter. Hence, don’t trust anything by default. Source NIST

Q34. Which attack exploits input validation vulnerabilities?

  • ARP spoofing
  • pharming attacks
  • cross-site scripting (XSS)
  • DNS poisoning

Source White Hat Sec

Q35. You are a security analyst, and you receive a text message alerting you of a possible attack. Which security control is the least likely to produce this type of alert?

  • IDS
  • SIEM
  • packet sniffer
  • IPS

Q35. SQL injection inserts a code fragment that makes a database statement universally true, like _.

  • SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1=1--'
  • SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " AND 1!=1--'
  • SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1=1--'
  • SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = " OR 1!=1--'

Q37. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

  • static analysis
  • black box testing
  • dynamic analysis
  • penetration testing

Q38. Which option is an open-source solution to scanning a network for active hosts and open ports?

  • Autopsy
  • Snort
  • Nmap
  • Wireshark

nmap is a port scanner wireshark is a traffic analyzer snort is an IDS autopsy is for forensic analysis

Q39. When implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) strategy, what is the first step in the process?

  • Evaluate the features of available DLP products to determine which best meet your organizations's needs.
  • Examine the flow of sensitive data in your organization to better understand usage patterns.
  • Conduct an inventory of all the data in your organization to establish classifications based on sensitivity.
  • Conduct a risk assessment to determine the best data labeling strategy for your organization.

Q40. Which malware changes an operating system and conceals its tracks?

  • virus
  • worm
  • rootkit
  • Trojan horse

Q41. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) use _ to create a secure connection between two networks.

  • encryption
  • a metropolitan area network
  • a virtual local area network
  • a wide area network

Q42. What is the process of challenging a user to prove their identity?

  • authentication
  • Single Sign-On
  • authorization
  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Q43. Which cyberattack aims to exhaust an application's resources, making the application unavailable to legitimate users?

  • SQL injection
  • dictionary attack
  • Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
  • rainbow table attack

Q44. You are a recent cybersecurity hire, and your first assignment is to present on the possible threats to your organization. Which of the following best describes the task?

  • risk mitigation
  • threat assessment
  • risk management
  • enumeration

Q45. You are at a coffee shop and connect to a public wireless access point (WAP). What a type of cybersecurity attack are you most likely to experience?

  • man-in-the-middle attack
  • back door
  • logic bomb
  • virus

Q46. You have been tasked with recommending a solution to centrally manage mobile devices used throughout your organization. Which technology would best meet this need?

  • Extended Detection and Responde (XDR)
  • Security Information Event Management (SIEM)
  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
  • Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Q47. Which type of vulnerability cannot be discovered in the course of a typical vulnerability assessment?

  • file permissions
  • buffer overflow
  • zero-day vulnerability
  • cross-site scripting

Q48. The DLP project team is about to classify your organization's data. Whats is the primary purpose of classifying data?

  • It identifies regulatory compliance requirements.
  • It prioritizes IT budget expenditures.
  • It quantifies the potential cost of a data breach.
  • It establishes the value of data to the organization.

Q49. You are responsible for managing security of your organization's public cloud infrastructure. You need to implement security to protect the data and applications running in a variety of IaaS and PaaS services, including a new Kubernetes cluster. What type of solution is best suited to this requirement?

  • Cloud Workload Protection Platforms (CWPP)
  • Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
  • Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)
  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)

Q50. Sharing account credentials violates the _ aspect of access control.

  • identification
  • authorization
  • accounting
  • authentication

Q51. You have recovered a server that was compromised in a malware attack to its previous state. What is the final step in the incident response process?

  • Eradication / Remediation
  • Certification
  • Reporting
  • Lessons Learned

Q52. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

  • dynamic analysis
  • static analysis
  • penetration testing
  • black box testing

Q53. Which encryption type uses a public and private key pair for encrypting and decrypting data?

  • asymmetric
  • symmetric
  • hashing
  • all of these answers

Q54. You have just identified and mitigated an active malware attack on a user's computer, in which command and control was established. What is the next step in the process?

  • Reporting
  • Recovery
  • Eradiction / Remediation
  • Lessons Learned

Q55. Which programming language is most susceptible to buffer overflow attacks?

  • C
  • Java
  • Ruby
  • Python

Q56. Which list correctly describes risk management techniques?

  • risk acceptance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk qualification
  • risk avoidance, risk transference, risk containment, and risk quantification
  • risk avoidance, risk mitigation, risk containment, and risk acceptance
  • risk avoidance, risk transference, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance

Q57. To implement encryption in transit, such as with the HTTPS protocol for secure web browsing, which type(s) of encryption is/are used?

  • asymmetric
  • both symmetric and asymmetric
  • neither symmetric or asymmetric
  • symmetric


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